A 55-year-old presents with bilateral lower leg pitting oedema and heart failure symptoms. Unremarkable initial investigations lead to digging deeper for the correct diagnosis.
A 34-year-old G2P1 IVF patient at 40+5 weeks presents with severe epigastric pain, bilateral leg swelling, hypertension and proteinuria. Despite initial management, she subsequently collapses and develops cardiac arrest, requiring on-site resuscitative hysterotomy.
A 27-year-old man presents to the ED with a history of collapse whilst on a treadmill at his local gym. He was witnessed to have been briefly unresponsive but there was no seizure activity.
You think this is a regular day at the office and a very straight forward case, but is it?
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