Author: Abdullah Lashrf, Ali Alharazi / Editor: Nick Tilbury / Codes: IP1, ObP1, PC1, SLO1 / Published: 03/07/2025
A 46-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with a 10-day history of low-grade fever and mild abdominal cramps. She underwent a uterine artery embolisation (UAE) procedure two weeks ago for symptomatic uterine fibroids.
On examination, there are no signs of systemic illness or acute distress. Her observations are within normal limits, and she appears clinically well. Abdominal examination reveals mild suprapubic tenderness without peritonism or rebound. There is no offensive vaginal discharge, and she denies urinary symptoms.
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What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Which of the following is the most suitable initial investigation?
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What is the best management strategy for this patient?
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