Author: Sophia Lomatschinsky, Faisal Faruqi / Editor: Sarah Edwards / Codes: SeC3, SeP1, SLO1, SLO2, UC1, UC7, UP4 / Published: 01/08/2025
A 45-year-old White-British male with no past medical history presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with a four-day history of right sided testicular pain and swelling.
He describes it as an intermittent niggling pain becoming progressively worse and persistent today. He has no associated urinary symptoms and no urethral discharge. He has no systemic illness.
On examination, he has a swollen and erythematous right testicle, with tenderness to the epididymis. He has normal testicular lie with a normal cremasteric reflex.
On further history-taking, he reports that he last had unprotected intercourse with a female two months ago while abroad on vacation in Cyprus. He has no previous history of sexual transmitted infections STIs and denies having sexual intercourse with men.
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Question 1 of 3
1. Question
What is the most likely diagnosis?
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Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following next steps would NOT be appropriate?
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You have done the recommended tests, including a urine dip which was negative. What would be the most appropriate management?
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Module Content
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6 responses
good case learning
Great Revision
good revision
I found this Naat test is beneficial
Good case study
good one