Case 3
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Question 1 of 2
1. Question
A 29-year-old right-handed joiner presents in the ED with fingertip crush injuries to the right middle finger. His nail is partly avulsed and a stellate nail bed laceration is visible. Radiographs reveal a displaced and unstable fracture of the proximal shaft of the terminal phalanx ring finger, with a dorsal step deformity.
Which of the following statements on the management of this injury are true?
Select one or more options.
CorrectIncorrect -
Question 2 of 2
2. Question
How should the following fingertip injuries be managed?
Select the appropriate type of management.
Sort elements
- Type II fingertip amputation
- Type III or IV fingertip amputation
- Can be managed conservatively in the ED
- Indication for hand surgeon referral
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Loss of the distal third of the terminal phalanx bone only
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Insufficient bone length for straight nail regrowth
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A soft-tissue fingertip defect of 1cm or less
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Bone exposure at the fingertip
CorrectIncorrect