Author: Maria Celina Bondoc / Editor: Steve Corry-Bass / Reviewer: William Gibbs / Codes: GP6, SLO1, SLO3, SuC8, SuP5 / Published: 27/11/2022
A 73-year-old lady presents with 2 episodes of passing dark red blood per rectum associated with LIF pain of 1 day duration. She is otherwise systemically well.
No previous hospital admissions, and no co-morbidities.
On examination, observations: BP=140/90 HR=65 RR=20 SpO2=97% RA, Temp 37°C, the abdomen is soft and mildly tender in the LIF. PR exam shows bright red blood on the examining finger with no other obvious abnormalities.
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Question 1 of 3
1. Question
Which of the following is false according to the British society of gastroenterology (BSG)’s guidelines on LGIB?
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Question 2 of 3
2. Question
Oakland score is comprised of the following variables except for:
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Question 3 of 3
3. Question
What is the most likely cause of lower GI bleed in this patient?
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Module Content
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4 responses
enforced previous learning, thank you
A good revision for LGIB and OAKLEY SCORE
Good learning
Great Revision